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Originally Posted by Bond369
By definition US did not act unilateraly in Iraq. US did "consult" other countries but it seems it would attack Iraq no matter how much talking was done. Can that even be called consultation (to me it looked like an ultimatum)?
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Is intent part of the definition?
The definition also fails under the "involvement of other nations" qualification. Yet, most in Europe persist in calling this a unilateral action. How vocal were/are you in correcting them?