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Originally Posted by fatboy
@Bond369 - As I've said, repeatedly, I've accepted your limited definition (would you prefer "application" instead?) of "unilateral". Now, would you agree that the US has never acted unilaterally?
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By definition US did not act unilateraly in Iraq. US did "consult" other countries but it seems it would attack Iraq no matter how much talking was done. Can that even be called consultation (to me it looked like an ultimatum)?