Mm. And Clinton didn't even use it for protecting military or intelligence issues. But what is the practice on the Privilege, really? Wasn't it overruled in Nixon's case because of that 'the need for evidence outweighs the presidental need for secrecy', or something like that? And is this supposed to be only in criminal cases against the president's person, or would this be possible to invoke if the presidency is involved generally? Because, even with the many reservations of the 911- commitee, there are issues directly involving these people - so could he really claim immunity anyway?